When you cascade routers one router is going to be …

Comment on Scottish Company Maidsafe Claims To Have Built A Bitcloud-like System by Staff.

When you cascade routers one router is going to be the master and the second router is going to be the slave router.

DHCP should be turned off on the slave router. Your Master router –the one that connects your local network to the internet– should have it’s opeing mode set to “gateway mode.” The slave router’s opeing mode should be set to “router Mode”

The reason the master is in gateway mode is because, as the name suggests, the master router serves as the “gateway” or connection point between your Local Network and the Internet or WAN through which all traffic must go through. The slave router is not controlling traffic between the WAN and LAN.

Your slave router should have DHCP turned off and should have an IP address that is much closer. It would be easiest if your Master router had the IP address Your slave should then have the IP address

Your master router should then be configured to assign the address range – Your modem should be connected to the WAN port of your Master router via ethernet. Then with another Ethernet cable connect one of the LAN ports of your MASTER router to one of the LAN ports of your Slave router. The WAN port of the SLave router should not be used, this way devices that are connected to either one of the routers will be on the same LAN IP segment.

It’s probably best to set the DNS server of your Slave router to the IP address of your Primary router (

– I would recommend setting up one of the routers as an Access point her than having two routers on your network. AP’s are much more user friendly and easier to troubleshoot.

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Scottish Company Maidsafe Claims To Have Built A Bitcloud-like System
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First note that you are given the forex es in “indirect” form. Indirect quotes tell you the number of foreign units it takes to buy 1 unit of domestic currency (your domestic currency is the US dollar). So, using the spot e, it takes £0.5267 to buy $1. The reciprocal ( 1 / the indirect e) will give you a “direct” quote, the number of domestic currency units (here, dollars) to buy one unit of foreign currency (here, the £). Thus, 1 / 0.5267 = 1.8961. This means £1 = (buys) $1.8961.

Looking at the spot and forward es….
0.5267 …0.5283…0.5299…0.5315
you see the number increasing over time…this means it takes more £s to buy dollars in the future. That means the £ is expected to weaken against the dollar in the future.
Another way to look at it is to look at the reciprocals of the spot and forward es. 1 / the indirect quote…
Examining these es, you’ll see that in the future the £ is worth fewer dollars. Again, this shows the £ is weakening against the dollar.

So, the answer to #1 is the £ is selling at a discount in the forward market. (It costs less, in terms of dollars, in the future, than it costs today, at the spot e.)

#2) There are two ways to go about calculating the answer. The fastest way is to do it this way: Since the indirect quote is expressed as £/$ = 0.5267, then £450,000/0.5267 = $854,376 (I drop the cents since your answer options drop them). You’ll see that this is the same as inverting the £0.5267/$1 to 1 / 0.5267 and multiplying by 450,000…so you have 450,000/0.5267 = $854,376. The other way, is really another way to invert and multiply, but with one more step. You actually “solve” for 1 / 0.5267 first, which gives you the direct quote, 1.89861, which is the number of dollars per pound, and then multiply by the number of pounds: £450,000 * $1.89861 = $854,376.

#3) First solve for the dollar value of the £450,000 at the 60 day forward e…invert and multiply
450,000 / 0.5299 = $849,216
or solve for the fraction 1 / 0.5299 first and then multiply:
1 / 0.5299 = 1.88715…times 450,000 = $849,216
Second, solve for the difference between receiving $s at the 60 day forward e vs receiving $s at the spot e today…
forward $849,216 – spot 854,376 = ($5,159)

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